As the OP says, Wikipedia has a wild article
about the Dirac delta "function". Interestingly enough, I think that there are a few good things in that wild article.
The first good thing is the picture right on top:

It may be a problem analytically, but when seen from a purely geometrical viewpoint, there is no problem at all:
the Dirac delta is the union of the $x$ - axis and the positive part of the $y$ - axis.
More precisely, it is the set
$$
\{(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2|((y=0)\land(x\ne 0))\lor((x=0)\land(y>0))\}
$$
Apart from the fact that (half)lines in Euclidean geometry cannot have an area, while the Dirac delta has one $=1$.
It's typical that the Dutch Diracdelta Wikipedia has an aditional section about Approximations with test functions. There are two nice GIF animations in the article showing how it works,
The secret is in scaling (with $\sigma$). Let $T(x)$ be one of the Test functions. Then quite in general we have, for any approximation of the Dirac delta with such a Test function ($\sigma > 0$) : $$ \delta_\sigma(x) = \frac{1}{\sigma}T\left(\frac{x}{\sigma}\right) \\ \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\delta_\sigma(x)\, dx = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} T\left(\frac{x}{\sigma}\right) d\left(\frac{x}{\sigma}\right) = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} T(x)\, dx = 1 $$ According to a sloppy definition, maybe used by some physicists, we have: $$ \delta(x) = \lim_{\sigma\to 0} \delta_\sigma(x) = \lim_{\sigma\to 0} \left[\frac{1}{\sigma}T\left(\frac{x}{\sigma}\right)\right] = 0 \quad \mbox{for} \quad x \ne 0 $$ Sloppy because, upon inspection, this limit covers only part of the geometrical representation, namely: $$ \{(x,y)|(y=0)\land(x\ne 0)\} \quad \mbox{but not} \quad \{(x,y)|(x=0)\land(y>0)\} $$ In order to cover the half $y$-axis case, we might need the inverse of the test function: $$ y = \frac{1}{\sigma}T\left(\frac{x}{\sigma}\right) \quad \Longrightarrow \quad x = \sigma.T^{-1}(y.\sigma) $$ And another limit, expressing that the upper $y$ - axis is approximated as closely as we want: $$ \lim_{\sigma\to 0} \left[\sigma.T^{-1}(y.\sigma)\right] = 0 $$ Example. Take test function number (5.), which is the Cauchy distribution: $$ T(x) = \frac{1/\pi}{1+x^2} \quad \Longrightarrow \quad \delta_\sigma(x) = \frac{1}{\sigma}T\left(\frac{x}{\sigma}\right) = \frac{1/(\pi\sigma)}{1+(x/\sigma)^2} $$ The inverse function (two branches) is found in a few steps: $$ y = \frac{1/(\pi\sigma)}{1+(x/\sigma)^2} \\ \frac{1}{\pi\sigma.y} = 1+(x/\sigma)^2 \\ x = \pm\sigma\sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi\sigma.y}-1} $$ For the sake of completeness: $$ \delta_\sigma^{-1}(y>0) = \begin{cases} \pm\sigma\sqrt{1/(\pi\sigma.y)-1} & \mbox{for} & y \le 1/(\pi\sigma) \\ 0 & \mbox{for} & y > 1/(\pi\sigma) \end{cases} $$ It is clear that for $x\ne 0$ : $$ \lim_{\sigma\to 0} \delta_\sigma(x) = \lim_{\sigma\to 0} \frac{1/(\pi\sigma)}{1+(x/\sigma)^2} = \frac{\sigma/\pi}{\sigma^2+x^2} = 0 $$ On the other hand, for $\,0 < y \le 1/(\pi\sigma)$ : $$ \lim_{\sigma\to 0} \delta^{-1}_\sigma(y) = \lim_{\sigma\to 0} \pm\sigma\sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi\sigma.y}-1} = \lim_{\sigma\to 0} \pm\sqrt{\frac{\sigma}{\pi.y}-\sigma^2} = 0 $$ Thus, in the limit, the Dirac delta is indeed equal to the geometry that is represented by the set $\{(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2|((y=0)\land(x\ne 0))\lor((x=0)\land(y>0))\}$ .