How does Calculus of Variational work in Finite Element Method
The common one-dimensional variational principle is explained once more at this place:
What we need, however, is a variational principle in three dimensions.
Let's consider in particular the following one:
$$
E = \iiint_D \left\{\left(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x}\right)^2+\left(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial y}\right)^2
+\left(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial z}\right)^2\right\}dV = \mbox{minimum}(\phi)
$$
Let $\,\phi = \psi+\epsilon.f$ , with $\,\epsilon\,$ a "small" disturbance and $\,fx,y,z)\,$ a completely arbitrary function,
which is zero at the boundaries $\partial D$ of the domain of interest. In this way the 3-D integral
has become an ordinary one-dimensional function $\,E(\epsilon)$ , which can be simply differentiated to find the minimum,
especially at $\,\epsilon = 0$ , where $\,\psi = \phi$ :
$$
\left.\frac{d}{d\epsilon}\right|_{\Large \epsilon=0}\;\iiint_D \left\{\left[\frac{\partial (\psi+\epsilon.f)}{\partial x}\right]^2
+\left[\frac{\partial (\psi+\epsilon.f)}{\partial y}\right]^2+\left[\frac{\partial (\psi+\epsilon.f)}{\partial z}\right]^2\right\}dV = 0
\quad \Longleftrightarrow \\
2\iiint_D \left\{\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}
+\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial y}\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}+\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial z}\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}\right\}dV = 0
$$
With the rues for differentiation of a product of functions:
$$
\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(f\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x}\right) =
\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial x} + f\,\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2} \\
\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\left(f\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial y}\right) =
\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial y} + f\,\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial y^2} \\
\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\left(f\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial z}\right) =
\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial z} + f\,\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2}
$$
Giving:
$$
\iiint_D \left\{\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}
+\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial y}\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}+\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial z}\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}\right\}dV = \\
\iiint_D f\left\{\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial z^2}\right\}dV \\
- \iiint_D \left\{\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(f\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x}\right)
+\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\left(f\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial y}\right)
+\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\left(f\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial z}\right)\right\}dV
$$
The last integral can be simplified with help of the divergence theorem:
$$
\iiint_D \left\{\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(f\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x}\right)
+\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\left(f\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial y}\right)
+\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\left(f\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial z}\right)\right\}dV = \\
\bigcirc\kern-1.4em\iint_{\partial D} f\left\{\left(\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x}\right)dA_x
+\left(\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial y}\right)dA_y+\left(\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial z}\right)dA_z\right\} = 0
$$
This area integral is zero because the test function $\,f\,$ is zero a the boundaries. Furthermore $\,\psi = \phi$ , so we are left with:
$$
\iiint_D \left\{\left(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x}\right)^2+\left(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial y}\right)^2
+\left(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial z}\right)^2\right\}dV = \mbox{minimum}(\phi) \quad \Longleftrightarrow \\
\iiint_D f\left\{\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial z^2}\right\}dV = 0
$$
For an anbitrary function $\,f(x,y,z)$ . Conclusion:
$$
\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial z^2} = 0
$$
This means that the Laplace equation is fulfilled. Can you proceed now for the somewhat more complicated problem,
as described in your question?